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Commonly Asked ISC2 CC Exam Questions with Answers

Commonly Asked ISC2 CC Exam Questions with Answers

The ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) exam is a pivotal certification for professionals seeking to validate their knowledge and expertise in the field of cybersecurity. This exam assesses candidates across five critical domains, ensuring a comprehensive understanding of:

Domain 1: Security Principles (26%)
Domain 2: Business Continuity (BC), Disaster Recovery (DR) & Incident Response Concepts (10%)
Domain 3: Access Controls Concepts (22%)
Domain 4: Network Security (24%)
Domain 5: Security Operations (18%)

Proper preparation is crucial as it not only demonstrates your proficiency in these areas but also equips you with the practical knowledge needed to tackle real-world cybersecurity challenges. Understanding and mastering each domain’s concepts will significantly enhance your ability to safeguard information assets and ensure data integrity, confidentiality, and availability. This guide provides a comprehensive set of ISC2 CC domain questions, complete with answers and explanations, to help you prepare effectively for the ISC2 CC exam.

Common ISC2 CC Exam Questions and Answers

Here are some common ISC2 CC practice questions:

Domain 1: Security Principles (26%)

1. Which of the following best describes the principle of least privilege?

A. Ensuring that users have access to all resources
B. Limiting user access to the minimum necessary to perform their job functions
C. Granting full access to administrators
D. Allowing temporary access to users for any tasks

Answer: B) Limiting user access to the minimum necessary to perform their job functions

Explanation: Least privilege restricts user access to minimum necessary permissions, minimizing the risk of unauthorized access and data breaches.

2. What is the primary goal of implementing security policies in an organization?

A. To ensure legal compliance
B. To create a framework for security controls and procedures
C. To enforce strong passwords
D. To train employees in cybersecurity

Answer: B) To create a framework for security controls and procedures

Explanation: Security policies offer a structured approach, outlining objectives and measures to ensure a consistent, comprehensive security posture.

3. Which security principle focuses on ensuring that data cannot be altered without authorization?

A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. Authentication

Answer: B) Integrity

Explanation: Integrity ensures that data is accurate and reliable and cannot be modified in an unauthorized manner. This principle protects data from tampering and ensures its trustworthiness.

4. Which of the following is an example of a physical security control?

A. Firewalls
B. Encryption
C. Security guards
D. Antivirus software

Answer: C) Security guards

Explanation: Physical security controls protect an organization’s hardware and infrastructure. Security guards are one such measure to prevent unauthorized access.

5. Which of the following best describes the concept of defense in depth?

A. Using a single security measure to protect assets
B. Implementing multiple layers of security controls
C. Applying security only at the perimeter of the network
D. Relying on user education for security

Answer: B) Implementing multiple layers of security controls

Explanation: Defense in depth uses multiple security layers to protect assets, ensuring protection if one layer fails.

Domain 2: Business Continuity (BC), Disaster Recovery (DR), and Incident Response Concepts (10%)

1. What is the main goal of business continuity planning?

A. To restore normal operations after a disaster
B. To identify potential threats to the organization
C. To develop incident response procedures
D. To ensure the continuous availability of critical business functions

Answer: D) To ensure the continuous availability of critical business functions

Explanation: Business continuity planning focuses on maintaining essential functions during and after a disaster, minimizing disruptions and ensuring operation.

2. Which phase of the disaster recovery plan involves the restoration of normal operations?

A. Response
B. Recovery
C. Mitigation
D. Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

Answer: B) Recovery

Explanation: The recovery phase of the disaster recovery plan involves actions taken to restore normal business operations after the immediate effects of a disaster have been managed.

3. What is the purpose of conducting a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?

A. To assess the security posture of an organization
B. To determine the impact of disruptions on business operations
C. To identify potential security threats
D. To develop security policies

Answer: B) To determine the impact of disruptions on business operations

Explanation: A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) helps identify critical business functions and the impact that disruptions could have on these functions. It aids in prioritizing recovery efforts and resources.

4. Which of the following is a primary component of an incident response plan?

A. Risk assessment
B. Communication procedures
C. Security policy development
D. Physical security measures

Answer: B) Communication procedures

Explanation: Incident response plans include communication procedures to ensure prompt and accurate information dissemination to relevant stakeholders.

5. What is the main purpose of disaster recovery testing?

A. To ensure compliance with regulations
B. To validate the effectiveness of the disaster recovery plan
C. To train employees on security policies
D. To identify potential threats to the organization

Answer: B) To validate the effectiveness of the disaster recovery plan

Explanation: Disaster recovery testing is conducted to verify that the disaster recovery plan works as intended and can restore critical functions and data within the required timeframes.

Domain 3: Access Controls Concepts (22% )

1. Which access control model is based on the classification of information and clearance levels of users?

A. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
C. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
D. Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

Answer: C) Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Explanation: MAC is an access control model where access rights are assigned based on the classification of information and the clearance level of the user. It is commonly used in environments requiring high security, such as military and government systems.

2. What is the primary purpose of the principle of separation of duties?

A. To reduce the risk of errors and fraud
B. To enforce strong password policies
C. To limit access to sensitive information
D. To ensure data availability

Answer: A) To reduce the risk of errors and fraud

Explanation: Separation of duties divides responsibilities among multiple people to prevent fraud and errors by ensuring that no single individual has control over all aspects of any critical function.

3. Which access control model permits data owners to decide who can access their resources?

A. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
C. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
D. Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

Answer: B) Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

Explanation: In DAC, the data owners have the discretion to assign access permissions to their resources. This model provides flexibility but also requires careful management to prevent unauthorized access.

4. What is an example of  preventive access control?

A. Audit logs
B. Security training
C. Intrusion detection systems
D. Firewalls

Answer: D) Firewalls

Explanation: Preventive access controls are measures designed to prevent security incidents from occurring. Firewalls are an example of preventive controls as they block unauthorized access to networks.

5. Which of the following best describes the concept of least privilege?

A. Providing users with minimal access rights
B. Allowing temporary access to resources
C. Rotating user roles periodically
D. Implementing strong authentication mechanisms

Answer: A) Providing users with minimal access rights

Explanation: Least privilege grants users minimal access needed for their jobs, reducing risks of unauthorized access and resource misuse.

6. What is the main advantage of using Single Sign-On (SSO)?

A. It requires multiple passwords for increased security
B. It simplifies user authentication by allowing access to multiple applications with one set of credentials
C. It provides a higher level of encryption for data
D. It ensures that users have minimal access rights

Answer: B) It simplifies user authentication by allowing access to multiple applications with one set of credentials

Explanation: Single Sign-On (SSO) allows users to log in once and access multiple systems, enhancing convenience and simplifying password management.

Domain 4: Network Security (24% )

1. Which device is primarily used to filter and monitor network traffic, both incoming and outgoing, according to predefined security rules?

A. Router
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Hub

Answer: C) Firewall

Explanation: A firewall filters and monitors traffic between different parts of a network based on an organization’s previously established security policies.

2. What is the primary function of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?

A. To increase internet speed
B. To provide secure remote access to a network
C. To monitor network traffic
D. To detect malware

Answer: B) To provide secure remote access to a network

Explanation: A VPN provides a secure, encrypted connection over the internet, enabling remote users to safely access the organization’s network.

3. Which of the following is a common method for preventing DDoS attacks?

A. Implementing strong passwords
B. Using intrusion detection systems (IDS)
C. Employing network firewalls
D. Deploying rate limiting and traffic analysis

Answer: D) Deploying rate limiting and traffic analysis

Explanation: Rate limiting and traffic analysis help to identify and mitigate DDoS attacks by controlling network traffic and detecting unusual patterns.

4. What type of attack involves intercepting and possibly modifying communication between two parties without their awareness?

A. Phishing
B. Man-in-the-Middle (MitM)
C. Denial of Service (DoS)
D. SQL Injection

Answer: B) Man-in-the-Middle (MitM)

Explanation: A MitM attack occurs when an attacker intercepts and can modify communication between two parties, compromising data confidentiality and integrity without their knowledge.

5. What security measure is used to detect and prevent unauthorized access to a private network?

A. Antivirus software
B. Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)
C. Web proxy
D. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) software

Answer: B) Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)

Explanation: A NIDS monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and threats, providing alerts to administrators about possible security breaches.

Domain 5: Security Operations (18%)

1. What is the primary goal of security operations within an organization?

A. To ensure compliance with legal requirements
B. To detect, respond to, and recover from security incidents
C. To develop security policies
D. To conduct security training for employees

Answer: B) To detect, respond to, and recover from security incidents

Explanation: The primary goal of security operations is to manage and monitor systems and responses, protect organizational assets from threats, and effectively handle incidents.

2. Which of the following is a key activity in security operations to maintain the integrity of systems?

A. Implementing access controls
B. Performing regular backups
C. Conducting security audits
D. Monitoring network traffic

Answer: C) Conducting security audits

Explanation: Security audits review and evaluate security measures and practices to ensure effectiveness and compliance with policies and regulations.

3. What type of system is designed to automatically detect and respond to potential security threats?

A. Antivirus software
B. Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system
C. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system
D. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

Answer: B) Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system

Explanation: A SIEM system aggregates and analyzes security data from various sources in real-time, providing automated detection and response to potential security threats.

4. Which of the following best describes a security incident?

A. An attempt to compromise system security
B. A successful breach of a network
C. Any event that threatens the security of an information system
D. A report of a phishing email

Answer: C) Any event that threatens the security of an information system

Explanation: A security incident refers to any event that poses a threat to the integrity, confidentiality, or availability of an information system, requiring appropriate response measures.

5. What is the purpose of a Security Operations Center (SOC)?

A. To provide end-user technical support
B. To manage and monitor security threats and incidents
C. To develop security policies
D. To conduct security training for employees

Answer: B) To manage and monitor security threats and incidents

Explanation: A Security Operations Center (SOC) is a centralized team that handles security issues, monitoring, detecting, and addressing incidents to ensure continuous protection of information assets.

6. Which process involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks to an organization’s information systems?

A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Incident response
C. Risk management
D. Penetration testing

Answer: C) Risk management

Explanation: Risk management involves identifying potential risks to an organization’s information systems, assessing their likelihood and impact, and implementing security measures to mitigate or manage those risks effectively.

You can also check out our videos by Prabh Nair:

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