Top CISSP 2024 Exam Practice Questions and Answers (Domains 1-4)

Are you preparing for the CISSP exam and wondering what types of questions you will face? The CISSP certification is a highly respected credential in cybersecurity, known for its challenging and comprehensive exam. To help you succeed, we’ve compiled a guide with commonly asked CISSP exam questions and detailed answers. This article provides commonly asked CISSP exam questions and answers, breaking down complex concepts into simple, easy-to-understand terms to make your study process more efficient. Whether you are just starting or reinforcing your knowledge, these CISSP practice questions will boost your confidence and readiness.

The CISSP 2024 certification exam tests your knowledge in eight domains of the (ISC)² CISSP Common Body of Knowledge (CBK):

Domain 1: Security and Risk Management (16%)
Domain 2: Asset Security (10%)
Domain 3: Security Architecture and Engineering (13%)
Domain 4: Communication and Network Security (13%)
Domain 5: Identity and Access Management (IAM) (13%)
Domain 6: Security Assessment and Testing (12%)
Domain 7: Security Operations (13%)
Domain 8: Software Development Security (10%)

A thorough understanding of each domain is essential for passing this esteemed certification exam.

CISSP 2024 Practice Exam Questions and Answers

Domain 1: Security and Risk Management (16%)

1. What does the term ‘residual risk’ refer to?

A) The risk that remains after all mitigation efforts have been applied
B) The risk that is completely eliminated
C) The risk that is transferred to another party
D) The risk that is accepted by the organization

Answer: A) The risk that remains after all mitigation efforts have been applied

Explanation: Residual risk refers to the risk that persists even after all mitigation and control measures have been implemented. It is the remaining exposure that an organization must manage, accept, or transfer as part of its risk management strategy.

2. After identifying a fraud incident, a security professional seeks to implement policies to reduce fraud and prevent employee collusion. Which of the following controls is the MOST effective in detecting and preventing similar fraud in the future?

A) Job rotation
B) Least privilege
C) Mandatory vacation
D) Separation of duties

Answer: A) Job rotation

Explanation: Job rotation is effective in detecting and preventing fraud as it involves periodically moving employees to different roles within the organization.

3. InfosecTrain recently migrated its services and storage to the cloud. As a security consultant, you notice employees store business documents on public cloud storage, creating a risk. You conduct a mandatory training session to teach staff proper cloud storage practices. Which risk treatment approach does this represent?

A) Risk Avoidance
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Mitigation
D) Risk Acceptance

Answer: C) Risk Mitigation

Explanation: Conducting a training session to teach staff proper cloud storage practices is an example of risk mitigation. This approach reduces the likelihood and impact of the risk by implementing measures to address the identified issue, in this case, educating employees on safe cloud storage practices.

4. Which of the following frameworks is widely used for risk management in information security?

A) ISO/IEC 27005
B) ITIL
C) COBIT
D) TOGAF

Answer: A) ISO/IEC 27005

Explanation: ISO/IEC 27005 is a global standard offering guidelines for managing information security risks.

5. According to an enterprise security policy, all systems must use passwords that are at least eight characters long. However, this policy does not apply to two systems on the network. One of these systems will be upgraded in four months, while the other will neither be upgraded nor removed from the network. What procedure should be carried out for these systems?

A) Provide a business reason for risk mitigation
B) Provide a business justification for risk avoidance
C) Provide a business justification for risk acceptance
D) Provide a business justification for risk transfer

Answer: C) Provide a business justification for risk acceptance

Explanation: Since one system will be upgraded soon and the other will remain as is, the organization must acknowledge the risk and justify why it is acceptable to operate with these systems despite non-compliance with the password policy.

Domain 2: Asset Security (10%)

1. InfosecTrain is expanding its operations and considering storing and processing customers’ personal information in different countries. The company’s compliance officer reviews various data protection laws to ensure compliance. To which country does the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) apply, and what key principles must InfosecTrain adhere to under this act?

A) United States; consent, accountability, limited collection, and safeguards.
B) Canada; accountability, identifying purposes, consent, limited collection, limited use, disclosure, retention, accuracy, safeguards, openness, individual access, and challenging compliance.
C) Australia; openness, access and correction, data quality, data security, and identifiers.
D) United Kingdom; lawfulness, fairness and transparency, purpose limitation, data minimization, accuracy, storage limitation, integrity and confidentiality, and accountability.

Answer: B) Canada; accountability, identifying purposes, consent, limited collection, limited use, disclosure, retention, accuracy, safeguards, openness, individual access, and challenging compliance.

Explanation: PIPEDA applies to Canada and outlines key principles for handling personal information in a fair and transparent manner.

2. What is the primary objective of data classification within an organization?

A) To facilitate interoperability and ensure data is only stored on cloud platforms.
B) To assign monetary value to data and determine the cost of storing and processing data.
C) To determine appropriate handling and allocate the necessary security to manage data.
D) To enable data deduplication and optimize the organization’s data storage capacity.

Answer: C) To determine appropriate handling and allocate the necessary security to manage data.

Explanation: The primary objective of data classification is to determine the appropriate handling and security measures for data based on its sensitivity and importance.

3. Which of the following is the least effective method of data deletion and may allow data to be recovered with special software?

A) Clearing
B) Purging
C) Destroying
D) Furnishing

Answer: A) Clearing

Explanation: Clearing is the process of removing data in such a way that it can be recovered with special software or techniques. While it may seem that the data is deleted, it often leaves traces that can be reconstructed.

4. Which of the following statements accurately describes end-to-end encryption?

A) The data is decrypted in the middle of the communications channel.
B) The routing information is encrypted along with the data.
C) The data remain encrypted until they are decrypted at the remote end.
D) End-to-end encryption is generally performed by an external entity.

Answer: C) The data remain encrypted until they are decrypted at the remote end.

Explanation: End-to-end encryption encrypts data at the sender’s end and keeps it encrypted throughout its transmission over the network, only decrypting it upon arrival at the intended recipient.

5. Which media sanitization method involves removing sensitive data from a system or storage device so thoroughly that the data cannot be reconstructed by any known technique?

A) Clearing
B) Purging
C) Destruction
D) Cryptoshredding

Answer: C) Destruction

Explanation: Destruction is the process of physically damaging a storage device so that the data it contains cannot be reconstructed or retrieved by any known technique.

Domain 3: Security Architecture and Engineering (13%)

1. Which of the following security models was first enhanced by US Department of Defense security rules and the requirement to demonstrate that secrecy could be maintained?

A) Bell-LaPadula
B) Biba Model
C) Clark-Wilson Model
D) Brewer-Nash Model

Answer: A) Bell-LaPadula

Explanation: The Bell-LaPadula model focuses on maintaining data confidentiality in computer systems. It is based on three primary rules designed to prevent unauthorized access to classified information.

• Simple Security Property (SS property): No read-up.
• Star Property (property): No write-down.
• Strong Star Property Rule: Same security level.

2. Which type of security model uses labels to keep track of clearances and classifications and implements a set of rules to limit interactions between different types of subjects and objects?

A) Bell-LaPadula
B) Biba Model
C) Clark-Wilson Model
D) Brewer-Nash Model (Chinese Wall)

Answer: A) Bell-LaPadula

Explanation: The Bell-LaPadula model uses security labels to manage clearances and classifications of subjects (users) and objects (data). It enforces rules to ensure that users can only access information for which they have the appropriate clearance level, thereby maintaining data confidentiality and limiting interactions to prevent unauthorized access.

3. Which of the following is not one of the rules of the Bell-LaPadula Security Model?

A) Simple Security Property (SS property): Sometimes referred to as no read-up
B) Star Property (* property): Sometimes referred to as no write-down
C) Strong star property rule
D) Invocation property

Answer: D) Invocation property

V The Bell-LaPadula model includes the Simple Security Property (no read-up), the Star Property (no write-down), and the Strong Star Property Rule. The Invocation Property is not part of the model.

4. With the Bell-LaPadula Security Model, security policies prevent information from flowing downwards from?

A) Low security level
B) High security level
C) Medium security level
D) Neutral security level

Answer: B) High security level

Explanation: The Bell-LaPadula Security Model enforces a “no write down” policy, ensuring that information cannot be transferred from a higher security level to a lower one.

Domain 4: Communication and Network Security (13%)

1. During a network security audit, it was discovered that sensitive data was being transmitted over the network in plain text. What is the best way to secure data in transit?

A) Use stronger passwords
B) Implement data encryption protocols such as SSL/TLS
C) Increase the complexity of network firewall rules
D) Restrict network access to certain users

Answer: B) Implement data encryption protocols such as SSL/TLS

Explanation: These protocols encrypt data as it travels over the network, ensuring that it cannot be easily intercepted or read by unauthorized parties.

2. What is a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) in network security?

A) A secure internal network for sensitive data
B) A subnetwork that separates internal networks from external networks
C) A zone where all network traffic is encrypted
D) A virtual network for remote access

Answer: B) A subnetwork that separates internal networks from external networks

Explanation: A Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is a subnetwork that separates an organization’s internal network from untrusted external networks, such as the Internet. It is a buffer zone that hosts external-facing services, such as web and mail servers while safeguarding the internal network from direct exposure to potential threats.

3. A security analyst receives an alert from the Intrusion Detection System (IDS) indicating unusual traffic patterns from an internal IP address. What should be the first step in investigating this alert?

A) Ignore the alert since it’s an internal IP address
B) Block the internal IP address immediately
C) Isolate the affected system and conduct a detailed analysis
D) Inform all employees about the alert

Answer: C) Isolate the affected system and conduct a detailed analysis

Explanation: The first step should be to isolate the affected system to prevent any potential spread of malicious activity, and then conduct a detailed analysis to determine the nature and cause of the unusual traffic patterns.

4. What does WPA2 provide for wireless networks?

A) Data encryption
B) Network segmentation
C) Device authentication
D) Traffic monitoring

Answer: A) Data encryption

Explanation: WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) provides data encryption for wireless networks. It uses the AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) protocol to secure communications, ensuring that data transmitted over the wireless network is secured from unauthorized access.

5. What is the purpose of a honeypot in network security?

A) To store backup data securely
B) To lure and detect unauthorized access or attacks on a network
C) To provide additional bandwidth to the network
D) To manage and configure network devices

Answer: B) To lure and detect unauthorized access or attacks on a network

Explanation: A honeypot is a security mechanism set up to attract and detect unauthorized access or attacks on a network.

CISSP Practice Exam Questions and Answers

Top CISSP Exam Practice Questions and Answers (Domains 1-4)
Top CISSP Exam Practice Questions and Answers (Domains 5-8)

CISSP with InfosecTrain

Preparing for the CISSP exam can be daunting, given the comprehensive nature of the exam, which covers eight critical cybersecurity domains. InfosecTrain is here to simplify your journey to becoming a Certified Information Systems Security Professional. With our tailored training programs, you get access to expert instructors, detailed study guides, and practical exercises that cover commonly asked CISSP exam questions and answers. Our resources help demystify complex concepts, ensuring you understand and retain essential information. By joining InfosecTrain, you benefit from structured learning, regular assessments, and dedicated support, making your CISSP exam preparation efficient and effective. Embark on your path to CISSP certification with InfosecTrain and secure your future in cybersecurity.

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