Top CISSP 2024 Exam Practice Questions and Answers (Domains 5-8)

Are you preparing for the CISSP exam and wondering what types of questions you will face? The CISSP certification is a highly respected credential in cybersecurity, known for its challenging and comprehensive exam. To help you succeed, we’ve compiled a guide with commonly asked CISSP 2024 exam questions and detailed answers. This article provides commonly asked CISSP 2024 exam questions and answers, breaking down complex concepts into simple, easy-to-understand terms to make your study process more efficient. Whether you are just starting or reinforcing your knowledge, these CISSP 2024 practice questions will boost your confidence and readiness.

The CISSP 2024 certification exam tests your knowledge in eight domains of the (ISC)² CISSP Common Body of Knowledge (CBK):

Domain 1: Security and Risk Management (16%)
Domain 2: Asset Security (10%)
Domain 3: Security Architecture and Engineering (13%)
Domain 4: Communication and Network Security (13%)
Domain 5: Identity and Access Management (IAM) (13%)
Domain 6: Security Assessment and Testing (12%)
Domain 7: Security Operations (13%)
Domain 8: Software Development Security (10%)

A thorough understanding of each domain is essential for passing this esteemed certification exam.

CISSP 2024 Practice Exam Questions and Answers

Domain 5: Identity and Access Management (IAM) (13%)

1. A company has discovered that an employee has been using a colleague’s credentials to access sensitive information. What immediate action should the company take to address this issue?

A) Ignore the issue as it is an internal matter
B) Terminate both employees involved
C) Conduct an investigation and enforce strict access control policies
D) Disable all user accounts temporarily

Answer: C) Conduct an investigation and enforce strict access control policies

Explanation: The first step is to conduct a comprehensive investigation to identify the scope of the issue and assess any potential impacts or unauthorized access.

2. What is the purpose of a Single Sign-On (SSO) system?

A) To provide multi-factor authentication
B) To allow users to authenticate once and gain access to multiple systems
C) To monitor user activity on the network
D) To encrypt user passwords

Answer: B) To allow users to authenticate once and gain access to multiple systems

Explanation: A Single Sign-On (SSO) system allows users to authenticate once and access multiple systems or applications without the need to log in separately for each, streamlining the user experience and enhancing security by minimizing the number of credentials to manage.

3. A healthcare organization needs to ensure that only authorized personnel can access patient records. What access control mechanism should be implemented to meet this requirement?

A) Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
B) Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
C) Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
D) Open Access Control

Answer: A) Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

Explanation: Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is an effective access control mechanism that assigns permissions to users based on their roles within the organization. This ensures that only authorized personnel can access information based on their specific job functions and responsibilities.

4. What is the main benefit of implementing a federated identity management system?

A) It improves password security
B) It allows multiple organizations to share and manage user identities
C) It provides real-time monitoring of user activities
D) It enables single sign-on for internal applications only

Answer: B) It allows multiple organizations to share and manage user identities

Explanation: Federated identity management allows multiple organizations to share and manage user identities across systems and domains, facilitating seamless access to resources while maintaining security and trust relationships between the organizations.

5. What is the purpose of user provisioning in IAM?

A) To monitor user activity
B) To assign and manage user access rights and permissions
C) To encrypt user data
D) To provide training for new users

Answer: B) To assign and manage user access rights and permissions

Explanation: User provisioning in Identity and Access Management (IAM) involves assigning and managing user access rights and permissions, ensuring that users have the appropriate access to systems and resources based on their roles and responsibilities within the organization.

Domain 6: Security Assessment and Testing (12%)

1. What is the primary objective of a vulnerability assessment?

A) To encrypt data transmissions
B) To identify and quantify security vulnerabilities in a system
C) To provide user access controls
D) To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity

Answer: B) To identify and quantify security vulnerabilities in a system

Explanation: The purpose of a vulnerability assessment is to detect and quantify security weaknesses within a system, enabling organizations to assess their security status and prioritize efforts to mitigate potential risks.

2. What is an important aspect of conducting a security audit?

A) Encrypting all data during transmission
B) Reviewing and evaluating the effectiveness of security policies and controls
C) Providing training for end-users
D) Monitoring network traffic for real-time threats

Answer: B) Reviewing and evaluating the effectiveness of security policies and controls

Explanation: An important aspect of conducting a security audit is reviewing and evaluating the effectiveness of security policies and controls. This process ensures that the security measures in place are functioning as intended and helps identify any gaps or areas for improvement.

3. What is the purpose of a security baseline?

A) To provide a set of minimum security standards for systems and devices
B) To monitor real-time network traffic
C) To develop new encryption algorithms
D) To conduct penetration testing

Answer: A) To provide a set of minimum security standards for systems and devices

Explanation: A security baseline establishes the minimum security requirements for systems and devices. It establishes a foundational level of security that must be met to ensure consistent protection across the organization.

4. A multinational corporation has multiple data centers worldwide. During a natural disaster, one of the data centers is completely destroyed. Which type of site should the company use to ensure minimal downtime and continued operations?

A) Cold site
B) Warm site
C) Hot site
D) Mobile site

Answer: Hot site

Explanation: A hot site is a fully functional offsite data center equipped with essential hardware, software, and data, ready to assume operations promptly in case the primary site is unavailable.

Domain 7: Security Operations (13%)

1. Which of the following is a key component of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

A) Network segmentation
B) Data encryption
C) Disaster recovery plan
D) Vulnerability scanning

Answer: C) Disaster recovery plan

Explanation: A disaster recovery plan outlines the procedures and processes to recover and restore operations after a disaster or disruption, ensuring the continuity of business operations.

2. What is the main purpose of conducting a tabletop exercise?

A) To train employees on how to use new software
B) To simulate a security incident and assess how well the incident response plan performs
C) To perform a full-scale test of the disaster recovery plan
D) To assess network performance

Answer: B) To simulate a security incident and assess how well the incident response plan performs

Explanation: The main purpose of conducting a tabletop exercise is to simulate a security incident and evaluate the effectiveness of the incident response plan.

3. Which of the following best describes a cold site in disaster recovery planning?

A) A backup site that is fully operational with all necessary hardware and software
B) A site with only the basic infrastructure and no equipment or data
C) A site that is used for data archiving and storage
D) A location where network traffic is monitored

Answer: B) A site with only the basic infrastructure and no equipment or data

Explanation: A cold site is a backup site with only the basic infrastructure, such as power and environmental controls, but without any equipment or data. It requires additional setup before it can be used for business operations, making it less expensive but slower to activate in the event of a disaster.

4. Why do security operations conduct root cause analysis (RCA)?

A) To identify the primary reason for a security incident and prevent its recurrence
B) To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity
C) To develop new security policies
D) To perform vulnerability assessments

Answer: A) To identify the primary reason for a security incident and prevent its recurrence

Explanation: Root cause analysis (RCA) in security operations aims to pinpoint the main cause of a security incident and enact preventive measures to enhance the organization’s security stance, thereby lowering the risk of similar incidents occurring again.

Domain 8: Software Development Security (10%)

1. Which of the following describes the concept of “defense in depth” in software development security?

A) Using multiple layers of security controls to protect software
B) Implementing only one strong security measure to save resources
C) Relying on the operating system to provide all necessary security
D) Allowing end users to choose their own security settings

Answer: A) Using multiple layers of security controls to protect software

Explanation: “Defense in depth” involves implementing multiple layers of security controls to safeguard software, ensuring that even if one control is compromised, others will continue to provide protection.

2. What is a common method to protect sensitive data in software applications?

A) Using plain text storage for ease of access
B) Encrypting the data at rest and in transit
C) Storing sensitive data in user profiles
D) Avoiding the use of access controls

Answer: B) Encrypting the data at rest and in transit

Explanation: Encrypting data both at rest and in transit is a widely used and highly effective method to safeguard sensitive information, ensuring its security whether stored or during transmission.

3. What is the purpose of static application security testing (SAST)?

A) To test the application’s performance under load
B) To identify security vulnerabilities in the source code without executing the program
C) To monitor network traffic for threats
D) To encrypt data transmissions

Answer: B) To identify security vulnerabilities in the source code without executing the program

Explanation: Static Application Security Testing (SAST) examines source code to detect security vulnerabilities without executing the program, allowing developers to resolve issues early in the development process.

4. An organization is developing a cloud-based application that must comply with data privacy regulations. What steps should the development team take to ensure compliance and protect user data?

A) Store all user data in a local database
B) Implement encryption, access controls, and regular audits
C) Use only open-source software
D) Disable user logging to protect privacy

Answer: B) Implement encryption, access controls, and regular audits

Explanation: To ensure compliance with data privacy regulations and protect user data, the development team should implement encryption, access controls, and regular audits. These steps help secure the data and ensure adherence to regulatory requirements.

CISSP Practice Exam Questions and Answers

Top CISSP Exam Practice Questions and Answers (Domains 1-4)
Top CISSP Exam Practice Questions and Answers (Domains 5-8)

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